This may seem a stupid question but please bear with me as I can not find the answer anywhere.
PSA is a substance produced almost exclusively by certain cells within the prostate gland (from a reference on the net)
This being the case, if the cancer spreads out of the prostate and the gland has been removed why does the PSA still rise? So for example it metastisises in to the bone why would the PSA rise? Would this not be a bone cancer and therefore have different markers?
Sometimes we get men here diagnosed with another type of cancer and they have biopsies to determine whether it is a new primary cancer or whether it is a secondary (mets) from the prostate. When they put the cells under a microscope they can tell the difference which is important if you have two cancers which need two different types of treatment.
That means the definition I posted is not strictly true as it is the cells that create the levels of antigen and not the gland, although of course the gland is made from the cells.
Tony
Sorry Lynn, as the Americans say "my bad"http://community.prostatecanceruk.org/editors/tiny_mce/plugins/emoticons/img/smiley-embarassed.gif
No Dee, but I am doing my homework in case I get to be one in my next life http://community.prostatecanceruk.org/editors/tiny_mce/plugins/emoticons/img/smiley-money-mouth.gif
Huge HUGS to you all.
Chris. xxxx
Ha, ha, ha. I have only just seen this - must have missed it in the big change-over! Not sure I would make a good nurse as I have no empathy but if I ever need a new job I'll let you know :-0
Lyn x
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